Hi,
I just wanted to know if there were any solid statistics on what percentage of men are norwood II, III etc. in middle age?
Thanks

There are two studies that I know of that were published on the subject. Drs. O’Tar Norwood and James Hamilton both did studies and each came up with different numbers.
Although there’s no general agreement on the statistics for the frequency of balding, it’s believed that advanced balding (defined as a Norwood Class 5, 6, or 7 pattern) occurs in about 35% of balding men. Balding itself is present in approximately half of all men over the age of 45. For those that fall into the 35% of Class 5, 6, or 7 pattern balding, this doesn’t mean that there’s a complete absence of hair in the balding area, as some hair may remain. Norwood Class 2 and 3 patterns appear in about 42% of middle aged men, however, I do not look at Class 2 patterns as much more than men with a mature male hairline.
Update: I removed the statistical breakdown from Dr. Hamilton’s study that I initially posted, because they’re unclear and they are widely different than other published statistics.


It is not known why one young man develops acne and another of the same age does not. Clearly the presence of testosterone is important for it to be there as it reflects an over-secretion of sebum and cyst formation. To be sure, you should be under the care of a good dermatologist. Bodybuilding, milk, IGF-1, acne, sex drive, and testosterone are all extraneous factors that do not have a direct causational relationship and you are just complicating the matter. As an example, you can have a very high testosterone level and still have no hair on your body. You can have a high testosterone level and still have a low sex drive, because sex drive is a complex problem. You can have no hair on your body and have a full head of hair (or vice versa or any permutations) You can drink rBGH milk or any type of milk for that matter and still have hair loss… or no hair loss depending on your genes. Get the point?