Two years ago I was getting my hair thinned out by my stylist because it was to thick. Two years later at age 37 my hair is considerably thinner. The thinning is more prevalent on the left top side of my head. The initial thinning was drastic and took place within a couple of months. Should I expect for this to continue at such a fast pace or will it slow down. My mother’s side of the family has little issues with hair loss while my father’s side does. Beside genetics what possible causes would be responsible for this to happen in the timeline it has?

First, I would want to map out your hair to see if this is symmetrical balding. At times, genetic hair loss is asymmetrical and will show miniaturization in the areas most impacted. Get to see a good doctor for an assessment. I can not help you over the Internet and would need to see you myself.


Traction alopecia reflects pulling on the hair. Long hair under a turban would do that, so as you are keeping your hair outside the turban, then that hair will not be pulled and the insult that is causing the hair loss will have been obviated. Shaving your head might keep the traction off your scalp, but as your hair regrows, the problem will reappear. A ponytail can also lead to the same fate, depending on the tightness and how much pulling is going on. Really, your only option to prevent this is to not produce traction on your hair.
For those that don’t know what this show is, check out this post:
When I eat hot chili peppers they make my mouth burn, which is caused by the capsaicin in the pepper. Yet rubbing chili peppers on one’s head won’t stop testosterone from converting to DHT (and the DHT is what causes genetic hair loss in men). I would think it might make their hair fall out rather than regrow it, but I really do not have enough knowledge about this. If you send me the reference, it might help me research the quality of the study better.